Posted by Todd (64.34.202.197) on December 19, 2000 at 18:51:41:
In Reply to: I DID misunderstand that (I still do, actually) posted by Margi on December 19, 2000 at 18:14:19:
Okay, on second reading, I guess Carl's post is confusing. To wit:
"For the last 3 or 4 weeks I have been down to 2 to 3 attacks a week - as opposed to a day. I have had a couple of bad episodes since Halloween, but the CH's have really slacked down."
I take this to mean that things have been pretty good for Carl, except for a couple bad spots since Halloween.
"I suspect that one of the, "ahem" - recreational pharmaceuticals I ingested on that night may have possibly been the culprit. Yes, I know - stupid me... I had been drinking and took anything you would have given me at that point,"
Ok, I interpret this to mean that Carl is saying that one of the drugs he took Halloween caused the bad periods of CH since then.
"Someone gave me a tab of X - better known as Exstacy. It is a hallucinogenic, but not quite the same as LSD or 'Shrooms. It has similar effects, and I am wondering if maybe it triggered something that knocked the CH's for a loop."
This follows the statement above (excepting a joking comment unrelated to the "facts"). After re-reading it (thanks to Margi's re-read), I guess I don't know what Carl is saying by this. Did the X cause the "bad spots" or is it responsible for the remission? I'm not sure.
Here's where we need Flash and PinkShark. As far as I know, "hallucinogenic" refers to the effects, not the chemical/medical actions. Exstacy is essentially an amphetamine. Is it in the same class as psilocybin? Does it act in the same way? What about the indole ring?
Footnote to BobP-
I pretty much told Carl what you said in your post entitled "PS......". :-)
T